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The john 8 usage is often taken in tandem with the other occurrence in the gospels of the absolute egō eimi, that found in mark 14:62 What does θεός mean in john 1:1, 20:28? In both these passages ego eimi is the natural greek response [4] in the circumstances, as may be seen in 9:9, where the man cured of blindness uses exactly the same words to acknowledge his identity.
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Three times in this sentence john uses this imperfect of εἰμι [eimi] to be which conveys no idea of origin for god or for the logos, simply continuous existence What's the difference if there's any Quite a different verb (ἐγενετο [egeneto], became) appears in verse 14 for the beginning of the incarnation of the logos.
So, the concept of the word eimi is not only an existence ‘come into being’ but of the perpetuity of that existence ‘endure, follow’
It is an existence that is present and, because it is present, is expected to continue This is a broad concept The verb, “eimi” occurs 2462 times in the new testament in various forms, but in only about 67 of these cases is the first person nominative pronoun, “ego” used with it. The new testament shows an interesting and (somewhat) unexpected pattern in the use of the greek phrase, “ego eimi”, “i am”
The exact phrase “ego eimi” occurs 48 times in the new testament It also occurs 11 times as “eimi ego” which has a very similar but still different construction and all are relational or predicative. Continuing the response to the meta call for contradiction And moses said to god, "here i come to the sons of israel, and i told them, the god of.
Also note that he did not say egw eimi 'o wn but just the common and unavoidable i am (he), given the question
The falling down backward is common with angels Num_22:27 and when the ass saw the angel of the lord, she fell down under balaam And balaam's anger was kindled, and he smote the ass with a staff. Christ used eimi or ego eimi frequently in the gospel of john
If paul did use eimi, and even if he didn't, i think he's referencing the holy spirit I think that's also hinted at in the verse following (acts 17:32) The passage you're quoting is clearly showing paul talking about physical things. Question in john 1:1,jesus is called by an anarthrous θεός while in john 20:28, it's by articular θεός
